I guess my question is why? Is this the result of a small population that had been "poisoned" (if you will) by a few people with this mutation? Or is it because the gene was prevalent in the general French and Polish populations from which the "founder" groups were pulled? I suspect the former, but I do not *know* that. If the latter, has the prevalence of the gene been "watered down" in the general populations through immigration?
You see, this is why I love science. I know it was said in a different context, but as Mark Twain said: "There is something fascinating about science. One gets such wholesale returns of conjecture out of such a trifling investment of fact."